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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 21.06.2025 02:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why do good-looking men date homely women?

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why do liberals and Democrats think it’s “ironic” for Donald Trump to say “We have to get back to law and order”?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Dont you think we should put Project 2025 into full force to completely decimate the evil and corrupt Democratic party? The answer is yes.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.